Re: consensus question: what if married owners disagree
From: Sharon Villines (sharonsharonvillines.com)
Date: Thu, 25 Feb 2010 22:49:23 -0800 (PST)

On Feb 26, 2010, at 12:37 AM, Jude Foster wrote:

In testing for consensus, is it by resident, by owner, or by unit? What if it concerns the election of the Board, which is required by the Bylaws?
Owners only, by unit only (with proxy process in place)?  What if two
people, married to each other, and owners of a unit, disagree?

it depends on your bylaws. Ours says a meeting has to have a quorum and there has to be a consensus of everyone at that meeting. Deed done. "Testing for consensus" generally means asking for objections from anyone in the room.

Class I decisions, involving finances, require a quorum of unit owners, counted by unit, not by number of owners. It doesn't matter how many owners are in the room as long as a majority of units are represented.

Class II decisions, all other decisions, require a majority of resident members to be present. That is actually a harder quorum to get because we have non-owner associate members who are renters or non- owning family members who are less likely to come to meetings. It is also common that with partners, only one attends meetings.

If consensus is not achieved, it goes to a vote, 75% of residents, to be approved by 80% of those present. That seems fairly clear. In a muddy sort
of way....

This depends on your bylaws. We've never actually defined a process for going to a vote, although we are attempting to do so now.

Married owners disagreeing is not relevant in any of our decision- making processes.

Sharon
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Sharon Villines
"Logic will get you from A to B. Imagination will take you everywhere." Albert Einstein




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